Of course not. At the same time, one has nothing whatsoever to do with the other.
You are studiously avoiding the question at hand, throwing up all sorts of distractions: you clearly want some peacable assemblies to have free speech rights while you want other peacable assemblies not to have free speech rights. Yet you don't want to admit it outright.
Whether corporations are "people" or not doesn't matter. The plain text of the First Amendment is obvious enough. "People have the right...to peacably assemble, to petition the government." You want to edit that to read "People have the right...to peacably assemble, to petition the government, but only in forms of which I approve, and not in forms of which I do not approve."
It will be interesting to see how you ultimately word your revision. Both political parties are organized in corporate form, you know...and labor unions are organized in corporate form too. So in your world, some corporations do have free speech rights, while others do not.
or are you saying that you don't want labor unions to be able to make political contributions, because they are organized in corporate form, and no corporate entities should have the right to make political contributions?
See, the question at hand has nothing whatsoever to do with whether corporations are people, or not. The question is merely, do corporations have the right to make political contributions? if no, then that excludes labor unions too.