Re: climate change times are a changin'
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5. Either the press is misreporting the studies, or the studies themselves are "slanted," to anyone with a basic familiarity with statistical modeling: given a complex model with multiple inputs that have interactive effects, it is highly implausible that the results will have the precision generally attributed to them (I'll expand on this theme in a subsequent post). ANY model this complex must have a range of likely outcomes. Some of the more "responsible" reporting i've read does indeed provide a range; however, there is far too much precision in what I've read to be plausible.
For example, in a simple, one variable "monte carlo" simulation, if your average annual rate of change is 1.5%, and your standard deviation is 3%, after 50 years, the difference between the 25th percentile result and the 75th percentile result is pretty wide. if we start with 1,000 as our index number, after 50 years the 25th percentile result is around 1,800, while the 75th percentile result is around 2,365 or 32% higher. So the middle 50% of simulated outcomes covers a fairly broad range. It's not inconceivable that parts of that range might have relatively benign results while parts of that range might have catastrophic results.
It gets more complicated if you add additional variables, since you generally also include correlation coefficients as well[SUP]1[/SUP].
- with 2 variables there is one correlation coefficient,
- with 3 variables there are three correlation coefficients,
- with 4 variables there are six correlation coefficients,
- with 5 variables there are ten correlation coefficients, etc.
Where do these correlation coefficients come from? typically by regression analyses, but what if the original data set itself is not completely precise? What if there is a change in the underlying drivers, so that an extrapolation from past results is no longer predictive of future results?
Anyway, any decent model will produce a range of outcomes with varying likelihoods assigned to each range. The more variables you introduce, the more ancillary assumptions you have to include.....and many times a slight change in the underlying assumptions might have a significant effect on the longer term outcome.[SUP]2[/SUP]
Long (-winded) story short: any time I read a prediction from a climate scientist that gives a single outcome, I get suspicious right away, because I know that their models do not work that way, they only provide a range of possible outcomes with an associated likelhood of outcomes. Perhaps what is being reported is merely a median result and the essential information is buried in a footnote?
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a correlation coefficient describes how much a change in one variable will affect a change in another variable. 100% correlation means the two move together in lock step: e.g., if you increase temperature of a gas, you increase pressure. -100% correlation means the two move inversely: e.g., you decrease the volume of a gas, you increase the pressure. 0% correlation means the two move entirely independently of each other.
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in my earlier one variable example, I used an average annual rate of change of 1.5% and a standard deviation of 3.0%. Suppose those were 1.75% and 3.25% instead? then after 50 years, the 25th percentile result is around 2,000 and the 75th percentile result is around 2,720, and the spread has widened to 38% from 32%.