again, without passing judgement on the desirability of national health care, here is the relevant nugget: "The nonprofit group based its findings on data from the U.S. Census Bureau, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and a 2002 Institute of Medicine study that showed the uninsured face a 25 percent higher risk of death than those with coverage."
The question then (as to the validity of the number given) is whether The "25 percent higher risk of death" is a result of not having insurance, or could it be that at-risk populations are more likely to not have insurance. For example, is it more likely that a yuppie engineer with a job and a house and a dressage pony just decides to pass on having health insurance, or is it the schizophrenic meth addict living under an overpass who is more likely to be uninsured? It quickly becomes clear that the lack of insurance isn't the issue, even though those who don't have it die younger. I suppose you could call it a confusion between causation and correlation.
This stuff really aggravates me about the headlines and conventional wisdom that a lot of health and science research generate.