unofan
Well-known member
Of course why is this wrong on its face? (edit: not the curve, but the 50-70% dealie) It assumes that the gov't can spend money faster than those who aren't the government. Something we generally believe to be false. The gov't gets money every time it passes through a tax system. The proportion of money held by gov't may be higher, but the total that goes through their hands will be lower because it takes them time to spend it. The money goes through the private sector faster and the gov't collects its nickel or whatever, but the frequency it goes through the private sector means they get more of those shiny nickels.
edit: The gov't only gets money when money is moved by the private sector. To assume that a lower end person moves the money faster through transfer payments (as often happens in welfare gov't situations) assumes the gov't can efficiently off-load their take-in the first place
I'm not arguing that we need to maximize tax revenue (indeed, Diamond himself argues that the maximum federal tax rate should probably not be more than 49.9% from a general health of the economy standpoint).. I'm merely refuting fishy's (and most GOP shills') assertion that we're constantly and permanently on the right side of the inflection point of the laffer curve rather than the left.