unofan
Well-known member
Does that include ... partial birth ...
Birthing, like pregnancy, is a yes or no proposition. Either you're born, or not. There's no partial pregnancy and there's no partial birth.
Does that include ... partial birth ...
Don't bring Roe v. Wade into this ... < you'll just have to imagine my simpering smirk here >
Where does the term "partial-birth" abortion come from?
The term was first coined by the National Right to Life Committee (NRLC) in 1995 to describe a recently introduced medical procedure to remove fetuses from the womb. Alternately known as "dilation and extraction," or D&X, and "intact D&E," it involves removing the fetus intact by dilating a pregnant woman's cervix, then pulling the entire body out through the birth canal.
Um, ... OK. But ...
http://www.npr.org/2006/02/21/5168163/partial-birth-abortion-separating-fact-from-spin
Intact, through the birth canal.
Um ... if it has a pulse, isn't it a citizen at that point, by your lawyering?
Um, ... OK. But ...
http://www.npr.org/2006/02/21/5168163/partial-birth-abortion-separating-fact-from-spin
Intact, through the birth canal.
Um ... if it has a pulse, isn't it a citizen at that point, by your lawyering?
They aren't issued a birth certificate, so no, they're not.
Since citizenship is granted at birth, you're not a citizen until then. (Boom, lawyered).
No because it has had his/her spinal cord snipped then the corpse is dragged out of the mother. If the doc did the snipping after the baby had been completely ejected from the mother, it would be murder. But because part of the baby remains inside the mother, there is a gray area in the law that permits this abomination.
I know there's a separate thread for this part of the discussion.
Uh, but you said ...
Birth is not a birth certificate. One is biologic; one is administrative. So, my fair esquire, which is it, birth, or paperwork? Does that mass have no citizen rights until an MD scribbles on paper? And remember, sometimes it takes days (weeks) to get that birth certificate. What of that mass in the intervening time? Disposable?
Don't bring Roe v. Wade into this ...
I thought that, for all practical purposes, SCOTUS had tacitly "rescinded" [in effect, not literally] the reasoning from Roe v Wade and pretty much re-wrote the whole subject matter in Casey v Planned Parenthood ??
In California Public Employees’ Retirement System v. ANZ Securities, Inc., SCOTUS rules that a statute whose text reads "in no event" actually does mean what it says.
Makes one wonder a bit why the ruling was only 5-4. How do the 4 interpret "in no event" to mean something different than what it says on its face??![]()
Did you read the entire decision and/or the cases relied upon by the parties. That would probably answer your question. The fact that it reached the Supremes should inform you that there was a bona fide dispute at many levels below.
Did you read the entire decision and/or the cases relied upon by the parties. That would probably answer your question. The fact that it reached the Supremes should inform you that there was a bona fide dispute at many levels below.
Did you read the entire decision and/or the cases relied upon by the parties. That would probably answer your question. The fact that it reached the Supremes should inform you that there was a bona fide dispute at many levels below.
If the Court can simply re-write any law that it finds inconvenient
Yep, pretty sure you didn't read the decision.Let's use an analogy (which I know are imperfect) so that maybe we can at least understand each other, if not agree.
Suppose you and I are roommates, and share a car. You say, "my mom is arriving at the airport next Saturday and I need the car to pick her up."
I reply, "I absolutely promise under no circumstances whatsoever will I take the car next Saturday."
Scenario 1: Saturday morning arrives and you find the car is gone, I took it. No matter how badly or how desperately I may have needed it, no matter how dire my emergency, did I break my promise?
Scenario 2: Friday night: I say to you, "remember how I promised under no circumstances I will take the car tomorrow? Something unexpected came up, and I really desperately need it. Here's $100 for cab fare for you to get to the airport, pick up your mom, and bring her back." Did I "break" my promise? or did I re-negotiate my promise into a new one that would be acceptable to us both?
To me, plain explicit language should always mean exactly what it says; however, there is a responsible way to adjust it so that you can then do something other than what the plain explicit language originally said.
If the language itself were unclear or open to more than one interpretation, that would be different.
When the language is that clear and that explicit, it needs to be adjusted by the legislature, not re-written by the Court (at least under our Constitutional system as it is supposed to function).
If the Court can simply re-write any law that it finds inconvenient, how can we rely on anything to be honored?